emmetttrudy
Sep 21 2009, 06:21 PM
In a defined benefit plan is it okay to have the participant pay the distribution fee out of his/her accrued benefit? For example, if the lump sum was $1,000 and the distribution fee is $100, can the participant only be paid $900? My feeling is that this is not okay since you are now paying the participant less than their accrued benefit.
PensionPro
Sep 21 2009, 06:27 PM
You may expenses from the plan assets but the participant must be paid $1,000.