QUOTE (Bill Presson @ Jul 9 2009, 09:18 AM)

I posted this earlier this year in another thread. The highlighted words are only because that's what I searched on to find my post.
I've been dealing with this for a long time. Back in 1993, I asked some very specific questions and got a General Information response from Jim Holland.
Part of that letter dealt with Rollovers. Here it is:
"You also asked whether the existence of rollover money from another qualified plan would have any effect on the transaction. Again, any question regarding the income tax effect of such a transaction is beyond the scope of a general information letter. However, we wish to draw your attention to certain considerations that affect the calculation of the level of incidental insurance coverage in such a situation.
The requirement that a profit-sharing plan provide for the accumulation of funds for a "fixed number of years" is found in section 1.401-1(b)(1)(ii) of the regulations. In applying the provisions of this section of the regulations to rollover money, the instant plan is considered separate from the prior plan. (See, for example, private letter ruling 8134110, dated may 28, 1981.) Furthermore, under Rev. Rul. 57-213, the amount of premiums that may be used to provide an incidental level of insurance coverage is determined with regard to the "total contributions and forfeitures" allocated to the participant's account. Because rollover money is neither a "contribution" nor a "forefeiture", no portion of the rollover money is taken into consideration when determining the amount of premiums that may be used to provide an incidental level of insurance coverage."
I know this isn't a ruling, but it is in writing and I've never seen anything more official to contradict it.
Very helpful string of messages!
One more question - one person indicated that the IRS could consider the rollover contribution used to purchase insurance to be a taxable distribution. If the plan were to apply the incidental benefit rule broadly and consider the rollover contribution to be part of the "aggregate contributions and forfeitures," and only used 25% of the rollover contribution for purposes of purchasing insurance, would this reduce the risk of an adverse IRS finding of a taxable distribution?
For example, using $25,000 of a $100,000 rollover contribution as a premium to purchases insurance, which is then held in the plan as a plan asset. Thanks again!