I have a plan that changed the vesting schedule from a 3 year cliff to immediate in 2004. There is an employee that was hired in 2004 prior to the vesting amendment. This employee did not meet the eligibility requirements to enter the plan until 2009. Now that she is in the plan, she is 100% vested, correct? I am having one of those Tuesdays that I seem to be questioning everything I think I know.

Was there anything out of the ordinary with respect to the amendment and its application?