QUOTE (Sieve @ May 14 2009, 04:56 PM)

I would argue that a "for cause" termination is not employer intiated--at least if the cause is gross misconduct (as opposed to under-performance or plant close-down)--and that therefore gross misconduct "for cause" terminations do not count towards the determination of whether a partial termination has occured. As the Rev. Rul. says: "In certain situations, the employer may be able to verify that an employee's severance was not employer-initiated."
But, even so, the Rev. Rul. pretty clearly applies the full vesting rule to all those who terminate during the period of the partial termination. Under the regs, on the other hand, I would say that the "for cause" terminations are not "affected" by the partial termination--if, that is, they properly are excluded from the calculation of the partial termination percentage.
Take your pick--but I fear that the Rev. Rul. language you quote will cover all terminations during the partial termination period.
I think Sieve is right on target.
A few years ago I represented a surgeon who had two full-time employees and a profit sharing plan. The next business in the building suite where the surgeon's office asked how it was working out with the 'two part-time employees' handling his office. Out of concern, the surgeon hired a PI to surveil the comings and goings of his two employees. The result was clear time clock fraud. He fired both of them. One was 20% vested, the other 40%. That's all he had the profit sharing plan pay out to them. They then contacted the regional office of PWBA (EBSA's prior name). PWBA was adamant about the firings being a partial termination, that it would not relent and that if payout of the otherwise forfeited benefits was not made, PWBA would litigate the issue for the two former employees. PWBA did not question the allegation of time card fraud, but insisted it was a partial termination nevertheless.