I'm thinking my question above was a dumb one. All the company is really doing is paying more if the separation occurs within 18 months of a change in control. So the answer should really be the same as the conclusion from this post:
http://benefitslink.com/boards/index.php?showtopic=39663The conclusion there was that the company could pay different amounts for different types of terminations (without cause, with cause, etc) without violating 409A because the time and form of payments were the same. If anyone can tell me how the situation described in that post is different from mine, above, please let me know.