Parent acquires 2 separate corporations (A & B) in late 2007. Parent causes Corporation A's 401(k)/PSP to merge into B's 401(k)/PSP on 1/1/08.
On 1/1/09, Parent intends to merge B's Plan into Parent's Plan. in early 2009, Parent intends to terminate Corporation A's business and all of its employees.
If A's business was terminated prior to merger of B's Plan into Parent's Plan, the terminating population is large enough for it to be a partial termination. However, once B's Plan is merged into Parents, the temination of all A's employees would not be large enough to be a partial termination if the relevant Plan and date are the Parent Plan and the date of the termination of A's business.
Question:
Is this a partial termination? What's the analysis?
Parent promised when it purchased A that A's employees would be fully vested in their Plan accounts, but never did so. The TPA suggests that the amendment should relate back to the date when the A Plan merged into the B Plan, 1/1/08.
What do you think about that?
