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Randy Watson
We have a 401(k)/PS plan. Although matching contributions are made quite often, PS contributions have never been made. Is this plan in violation of 1.401-1(b)(2) (substantial and recurring contribution requirement)?
dbvail
Fun question. My approach is to consider any '401k' plan as a subset of PS. Therefore, contributions are in fact being made and this would satisfy the requirement. Now I realise each contribution type can be considered a 'plan' for various testing regimines, but that doesn't defeat the basic premise that this plan is recieving regular contributions.

Aside: as a practical matter, what would the IRS or DOL's position be regarding correction? Disqualification of a bona fide plan that serves the needs of employees is unlikely.

I guess I'd not worry too much about it. But then I'll wait for more informed responses.

Good luck.
Archimage
No, it is not a violation.
Randy Watson
It's not a violation because the 401(k) and the PS are merely components of the same plan?
Archimage
401(k) deferrals and matching contributions are considered employer contributions.
Randy Watson
QUOTE (Archimage @ Aug 24 2006, 05:28 PM) *
401(k) deferrals and matching contributions are considered employer contributions.


Very nice. Thank you.
BG5150
QUOTE (Randy Watson @ Aug 24 2006, 04:48 PM) *
We have a 401(k)/PS plan. Although matching contributions are made quite often, PS contributions have never been made. Is this plan in violation of 1.401-1(b)(2) (substantial and recurring contribution requirement)?

Is the profit sharing contribution at the employer's discretion? If it is, then there is no violation.

The match might even be discretionary.
Randy Watson
It is discretionary, but don't believe that matters under1.401-1b)(2).
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