James Vito Esposito
Jun 20 2006, 09:56 AM
I believe the answer to this question is a clear "yes", based on Treasury Regs and "Constructive Ownership". But added confirmation and input is appreciated...
If more than 5% of Employer Stock attributes to a particular ESOP participant in a lookback year, is that participant considered to be a "5% Owner" and thus considered a Highly Compensated Employee of the Employer sponsoring the plan?
Thanks,
Espo, QPA
Kirk Maldonado
Jun 20 2006, 11:31 AM
Looking at this question very briefly, I think you don't have to take into account the shares in the ESOP, if you parse through all of the code sectiions.
Belgarath
Jun 20 2006, 11:56 AM
My initial guess would have been to agree with you. However, I looked into it, and I agree with Kirk.
James Vito Esposito
Jun 20 2006, 01:31 PM
QUOTE (Belgarath @ Jun 20 2006, 12:56 PM)

My initial guess would have been to agree with you. However, I looked into it, and I agree with Kirk.
Thanks very much... What in particular led you to conclude as such? Can you give me a citation to start with?
Belgarath
Jun 20 2006, 01:58 PM
Sure - since stock attribution for H/C purposes is IRC 318 attribution, and 318(a)(2)(B)(i) excludes stock under an employees' trust described in 401(a) which is exempt from tax under 501(a), and an ESOP is such a trust, then I don't see that the attribution applies here. I didn't go any further than this, as it didn't seem necessary.
James Vito Esposito
Jun 20 2006, 02:27 PM
QUOTE (Belgarath @ Jun 20 2006, 02:58 PM)

Sure - since stock attribution for H/C purposes is IRC 318 attribution, and 318(a)(2)(B)(i) excludes stock under an employees' trust described in 401(a) which is exempt from tax under 501(a), and an ESOP is such a trust, then I don't see that the attribution applies here. I didn't go any further than this, as it didn't seem necessary.
Excellent! Thanks very much...
Espo
tmills
Jun 27 2006, 04:26 PM
Sorry to join this late but does anyone have an opinion as to why even though shares owned by an individual in a 401(a) plan are ignored for purposes of computing 5% ownership (as discussed in previous posts to this thread), the total of such shares owned by the plan are included in the denominator for 5% purposes? I say that b/c 416(i) and 318 don't appear to exclude plan shares from the definition of 5% of the outstanding stock. Seems like a heck of a deal.
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