mickiemurphy
May 31 2006, 08:30 AM
I have a closely held c-corp with several 30% owners. They are interested in starting an ESOP. One of the 30% owners would like to sell an equivalent of 5% of company stock to a new ESOP to start the plan. He would not be able to take the 1042 election.
I have several questions.
Is there a problem with the ESOP starting out with such a small percentage of outstanding stock?
Would the 30%, now 25% owner be prohibited from receiving allocations of stock if there is no 1042 election?
Would the employee-son of the selling owner be prohibited from receiving an allocation of stock if there is no 1042 election by the father?
stephen
May 31 2006, 12:53 PM
If there is not a 1042 election the now 25% owner and the son would be allowed to share in the allocation of those shares.
There is not a problem with the ESOP starting with a small number of shares.
BeckyMiller
Jun 6 2006, 04:16 PM
You did not describe how large a payroll base you have for this company. I agree with stephen's remarks, but just wanted to note that there may be a problem in getting capital gain treatment for the seller, if there is a very small payroll base. See Rev. Proc. 87-22 and a bunch of PLRs that were issued under this procedure.
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