Earl
Apr 1 2005, 05:05 PM
I have a plan with KEY employee who sold his ownership and is still working for the company. Now he turns 70 1/2. Doesn't want to take Minimum Distributions.
Is there a rule that he has to take minimums if he was key within last 5 years?
I can't find it but I seem to remember it or something like it...
Thanks for any clarification.
WDIK
Apr 4 2005, 05:13 PM
§ 1.401(a)(9)–2, A-2©
© For purposes of section 401(a)(9), a 5-percent owner is an employee who
is a 5-percent owner (as defined in section 416) with respect to the plan year ending in the calendar year in which the employee attains age 70-1⁄2.
Blinky the 3-eyed Fish
Apr 4 2005, 05:57 PM
Although Earl you aren't making up that 5-year rule. I am not sure if EGTRRA changed it, but it did exist at one time.
mbozek
Apr 5 2005, 12:36 PM
the proposed a9 regs applied the 5% rule to any owner with a greater then 5% interest at age 66 or later.
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