Scenario:
Employee worked for 10 years at Company A and terminated in 1992. The employee was paid out his accrued benefit in 1999(lump sum). The employee then rehires in 2002 and works until 2004.

Under regulations, would the employee be entitled to vesting for his prior service(1992 and prior years)?

Would the employees break-in-service go back to his original termination date(1992) or would the employees pay-out date be the "adjusted" break-in-service start date which means the employee would not have a 5, 1-year breaks in service?

Any help provided would be much appreciated!!!!!
Thanks,
Fred