I received an e-mail from someone on Benefits link, but their e-mail does not work, so I can not respond directly.
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This is kind of a silly question, but I thought that provided you are using 100% of TWB, integration percentage had to be the lesser of 5.70% or the actual base percentage, but as I read Spencers, it seems to say it is the percentage is the lesser of 5.70 or 2 times.
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Basically it is the same thing, but one has to be careful about the terminolgy being used.
for example, a plan allocates 3% up to the TWB and 6% above the TWB would be ok (there is your 2 times formula)
algebraically 3% up to TWB + 6% > TWB but this is the same as
3% up to TWB + (3%>TWB + 3%>TWB) which can be rewritten as
(3% up to TWB + 3%> twb) + 3%>twb or
3% total comp + 3%> twb
hope that helps