I have a question about FICA and qualified governmental excess benefit plans. My thinking is as follows:
1. Section 3121(a)(5)(E) excludes from wages (and therefore FICA) payments made to an employee under an exempt governmental deferred comp plan.
2. Section 3121(v)(3) defines an exempt governmental deferred comp plan, for purposes of Section 3121(a)(5), as any deferred comp plan maintained by a governmental entity. There is an exception in Section 3121(v)(3)(A) for plans to which Section 83, 402(B), 403©, 457(a) or 457(f)(1) applies. The additional exceptions in Section 3121(v)(3)(B) and © are not relevant in this instance.
3. Imagine a qualified governmental excess benefit plan that meets the requirements of Section 415(m) (no election, no trust, etc.). Such a plan would not be subject to Section 457(f)(1) because Section 457(f)(2)(E) excludes plans described in Section 415(m) from the reach of Section 457(f)(1).
4. My question: based on the foregoing, could a qualified governmental excess benefit plan, as described in Section 415(m), also satisfy the Section 3121(v)(3) definition of an exempt governmental deferred comp plan and, therefore, could payments to the plan be exempt from FICA? The exception in Section 3121(v)(3)(A) wouldn't necessarily apply, because the qualified governmental excess benefit plan would not be subject to Section 457(f)(1), thanks to Section 457(f)(2)(E). If none of the other Code Sections listed in Section 3121(v)(3)(A) applied, could the qualified governmental excess benefit plan also be an exempt governmental deferred comp plan?
If I am correct, this must be an unanticipated consequence of the SBJPA, which, after all, aimed in part to equalize the income tax treatment of governmental and for-profit employers' excess benefit plans. For some governmental plans to enjoy a FICA loophole must be an oversight. An equally plausible scenario is that I am missing something fundamental in this analysis. I'd appreciate any insight anyone could provide.