Star Seeker
Oct 11 2002, 01:54 PM
I have a prototype profit sharing plan. It now provides that for distributions made more than 90 days after the last valuation date the participant will be paid 5% interest in lieu of re-valuing the plan to reallocate the earnings. Plan provides for annual valuations and has pooled accounts. TPA has requested using 0% interest. My mind is screaming that this can't be done, but I can't find any authority on this. Any suggestions?
QDROphile
Oct 11 2002, 02:34 PM
How about the ERISA and tax provsions that require the plan to be administered in accordance with its terms?
Star Seeker
Oct 11 2002, 02:39 PM
TPA wants to amend plan to change to 0%.
Kirk Maldonado
Oct 11 2002, 03:28 PM
I don't think that is permitted under the Section 411 regs.
Star Seeker
Oct 11 2002, 03:33 PM
which? The amending to reduce or the attempting to short the participant?
QDROphile
Oct 11 2002, 03:47 PM
My limited comment on the 0% is that the amendment would be stupid and inflammatory. Almost a guarantee of a challenge. If the plan is amended, it should be to eliminate the reference to interest at all, not to change the percentage to zero. No comment on how to implement.
This is a "lo-fi" version of our main content. To view the full version with more information, formatting and images, please
click here.