Moreno
Sep 6 2001, 10:10 AM
Is anyone aware whether 401(k) plan assets can be used to purchase DB plan service credits? I know that this is permissible for other 401(a) plans, but wasn't sure whether there was a particular restriction with respect to 401(k) plans.
I am intrigued by your statement "I know that this is permissable for other 401(a) plans.."
It is my understanding that it is not permissable for the money to come from any qualified plan. In the past, it must be after-tax money from the participant. Please explain where you are getting your information.
Note: EGTRRA only changed it to make it allowable from 403(B) and 457 plans.
Moreno
Sep 6 2001, 12:38 PM
My understanding is that this is expressly permitted under Code section 415(n). I realize that the EGTRRA change only extended the current permissibility to 457 & 403(B) plans, but I thought that would permit these types of credit purchases on the same basis.
Carol V. Calhoun
Nov 10 2001, 10:55 PM
Section 415(n) by its terms deals only with after-tax employee contributions to purchase service credit under a defined benefit plan. However, direct transfers from one 401(a) (including 401(k)) plan to another for any purpose have always been allowed, if both the transferring and receiving plan allow such transfers. They are rare in nongovernmental plans, mostly because the plan must preserve all of the rights protected by Code section 411(d) (including, for example, the right to receive the accrued benefit as a defined contribution account) with respect to the transferred money. However, because governmental plans are not subject to Code section 411, they can more readily provide for transfers.
The real limitation on this practice, clearly, is that state and local governments that do not already have 401(k) plans are not allowed to adopt new ones. That is why the opportunity to transfer money from 403(B) or 457(B) plans, rather than just qualified plans, to purchase service under a qualified defined benefit plan, will be so important.