jhannifan
Aug 1 2001, 08:41 AM
I have a client that has both a profit sharing plan and a money purchase pension plan. My understanding of the changes made in the 2001 tax act are that they will no longer need the MPP plan for 2002 and beyond. Is this correct?
Also, assuming it is terminated, should it be terminated 12/31/01 or sometime in 02?
Thanks.
Need nore info. Why does sponsor have both plans?
Even if sponsor no longer "needs" the MP plan, that does not imply it should be terminated. Perhaps it will be frozen. If so, some advance planning should be done to determined when is the best time to make the amendment for that. Also possible that the plan will continue unchanged.
Ray Williams
Aug 1 2001, 10:09 AM
Change your settings to show posts back through 7/16/01- then read the Tread " Death of the MPP". This is a long discussion of the same issue