I have a new CB plan for 2008 that defines the accrued benefit as the CB account balance and uses the 30 year T-rate as the AE and the interest crediting rate. There is no past service credit. As everyone knows, under PPA the target normal cost is less than the total cash balance accounts contribution. My software vendor has not yet programmed the at-risk 404 calc. When I work through an example from a session at last years advanced actuarial conference I seem to end up with the exact cash balance account deposit. That's a good thing. BTW, 415 does not come into play in this case. I'm just looking for some input from anyone that's worked though the at-risk calc as to whether that sounds reasonable. Thanks.

That is the way I understand it.

Thanks.