4 companies are, through ownership, in the same controlled group.
One company insists that it should not be considered a member of the controlled group because it is "just a sub-s corporation" and the company has never been used to control income or accumulate profits.
I have never before heard this type of argument. Is there merit to this argument for not being considered part of a controlled group of companies?
Any tax-gurus available to weigh in?
Thank you, thank you
