JWIRA
Sep 8 2006, 07:35 PM
Hi! If an employer overpays wages and as a result makes a larger than usual employee contribution and employer matching contribution to a 401(k) plam, how should this best be corrected? The employer has proposed that the employee will repay the excess wages and employee contribution via check or payroll deduction over a period of time. This does not seem to correct the problem that the money should not be in the 401(k) account. The error happened with a small number of employees at a very large employer. Thanks, JWIRA
BG5150
Sep 11 2006, 12:52 PM
The money should be taken out of the participant's account and put in a suspense account. The dollars should then be used to offset the employer's next contribution.
(At least, that's the way we do it.)
Bird
Sep 11 2006, 05:16 PM
If the wages were simply overpaid, and they're simply going to reduce future wages, then won't the 401(k) issues fix themselves? I mean, if someone elected 5% as a deferral, and the company overpaid the wages and put in 5% of the overpaid wages, unless they're asking for the money back, and they're not, I don't see a problem.
stephen
Sep 12 2006, 10:04 AM
I agree with Bird on this one.
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