nipa
Nov 26 2003, 12:24 PM
An individual owns and is the only employee of 2 different unrealted companies. The financial adviser has informed the individual that he/she can have two plans and contribute $20,000 to each plan.(there is no salary deferral). I am having a brain cramp and don't believe this is possible. Could someone confirm one way or the other. Thanks
R. Butler
Nov 26 2003, 12:50 PM
I'm not sure what you mean by unrelated. If he is sole owner of 2 companies, the 2 companies are a controlled goup.
Each company could sponsor a profit sharing plan. Depending on compensation the owner/employee could get a $20,000 allocation under each plan. If its a controlled group situation, it may be better to establish 1 SEP.
nipa
Nov 26 2003, 01:31 PM
in my original post I was thinking incorrectly of the 40,000 annual addition dollar limit and dividing it, but what I really was thinking how about $40,000 in each plan
Blinky the 3-eyed Fish
Nov 26 2003, 01:48 PM
He can't get $40,000 in each plan. It is a controlled group, so it's just like it's one employer.
Earl
Nov 28 2003, 01:57 PM
Isn't there a reg that says even if it is not a control group the 80% threshold is reduced to 50% for the application of the 415 limit?
I remember it and looked for 5 mins but can't find it...
Harwood
Nov 28 2003, 02:20 PM
§ 415 Limitations on benefits and contributions under qualified plans.
(h) 50 percent control.
For purposes of applying subsections (b) and © of section 414 to this section, the phrase "more than 50 percent" shall be substituted for the phrase "at least 80 percent" each place it appears in section 1563(a)(1).
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