A client would like to spin off a portion of its defined benefit plan and allocate the excess assets entirely to the old plan. The old plan would then cover a group of participants whose benefits are already fully annuitized. The old plan would then be terminated and the annuities distributed. The excess would revert to the employer.
Is there anything wrong with this picture? I know gov't plans aren't subject to the excise tax on reversions, or to the requirements of Code section 414(l). How about the requirement in the Internal Revenue plan termination handbook that the new plan must be fully annuitized in a spin-off/termination? They don't want to do that.
Has anyone had experience with reversions from gov't plans?