Guest Tara Curran Posted March 28, 2001 Posted March 28, 2001 Is it discriminatory if a plan sponsor offers an investment option that has a fairly large minimum investment amount and the only person who will be able to invest in this investment option is the owner? The accounts will be self-directed and the other employees will have the option to invest in this fund, but they will not have the required amount to invest.
david rigby Posted March 28, 2001 Posted March 28, 2001 Some earlier discussion. http://www.benefitslink.com/boards/index.p...=ST&f=20&t=4558 http://www.benefitslink.com/boards/index.p...=ST&f=20&t=8869 I'm a retirement actuary. Nothing about my comments is intended or should be construed as investment, tax, legal or accounting advice. Occasionally, but not all the time, it might be reasonable to interpret my comments as actuarial or consulting advice.
Guest Jeff V Posted April 1, 2001 Posted April 1, 2001 I might be missing something in your question... If the minimum investment amount is imposed by the broker, can't you negotiate the minimum down, and consolidate allocations so that a group of participants who allocate funds meets the minimum? jeff.vonreichenbach@marriott.com
actuarysmith Posted April 2, 2001 Posted April 2, 2001 What is the required minimum investment? By your description I would guess that it is thousands. This would very likely result in a Benefits, Rights, and Features discrimination issue. See 1.401(a)(4)-4© Effective availability.
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