jkharvey Posted September 20, 2000 Posted September 20, 2000 Is it a partial termination if 3 out of 4 participants voluntarily terminate employment? In this particular case, after the mass exodus the employer now has no employees and has not had any compensation for the last 2 years. This is a MPPP and now we have considerable "forfeitures" that can't be allocated because we have no compensation. Seems to me that this may qualify as a partial termination.
Guest SHP Posted September 20, 2000 Posted September 20, 2000 The termination of participation has to be INVOLUNTARY to trigger cause a partial termination. However, in Kreis v. Charles O. Townley, M.D. and Associates, P.C., 833 F.2d 74(6th Cir. 1987) the court addressed the issue of a constructive discharge theory: "Whether a constructive discharge has occurred will depend on a number of factors, including the employer's intent, the working conditions and the reasonably forseeable impact of the employer's conduct on the employees who quit." Tripodi's ERISA Outline Book 1999/2000 edition covers the issue on pp. 4.78-4.81 Audit guidelines state that IRS presumes all terminations are involuntary unless the employer shows otherwise.
david rigby Posted September 20, 2000 Posted September 20, 2000 These previous discussions may be helpful. http://www.benefitslink.com/boards/index.php?showtopic=3013 http://www.benefitslink.com/boards/index.php?showtopic=3760 http://www.benefitslink.com/boards/index.php?showtopic=3742 http://www.benefitslink.com/boards/index.php?showtopic=244 I'm a retirement actuary. Nothing about my comments is intended or should be construed as investment, tax, legal or accounting advice. Occasionally, but not all the time, it might be reasonable to interpret my comments as actuarial or consulting advice.
Guest Posted September 21, 2000 Posted September 21, 2000 I agree with SHP, howevre, I think that factually this likely will be deemed a termination. Remember that the forfeiture be allocated among all the participants.
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